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ever so slightly obsessed
29 November 2005 @ 01:07 pm
hi, apologies for the mild irrelevance :/

But I'd like to draw your attention (particularly elettaria! you there?) to the poll posted a while ago and the comments it generated. Unfortunately this was while LJ was being spacky and not sending email notifications.

But yep, I'd love more comments/feedback please! and then we can have the poll to end all polls.


The subject of menorrhagia is actually bothering me a little. About 50% of us seem to fit the technical definition, yet only a maximum of 10% have the symptoms. Is the official medical figure (80 ml or more) wrong? I'd also be curious about why the results were so unlike the figures quoted in the websites I linked to - We seem to bleed a lot more. Did the doctors who decided on that figure get it wrong? Was the poll just crap? Are we perhaps not very representative? if you bled less than 30ml, I guess you really wouldn't need to use a cup... etc etc.

Talk to me :)
ever so slightly obsessedscien on May 21st, 2007 07:46 am (UTC)
Hey! :) Thanks for commenting, reminded me that I should really post the new updated version of the poll we discussed. When finals are over, anyway. Aww, since this was posted, my periods have changed a lot. I only get a couple of heavy days. Thank heavens for the pill, it's nice to not be completely out of it for a week :)

Well, you're definitely in the higher range. If it's not leading to any problems, though, then I would assume you're fine. From what I managed to work out, the 80ml type statistics could refer to blood rather than fluid. And from a little research, menstrual fluid is roughly 50% blood, so that might be what's going on. Or, really, it might not - those figures don't really fit our statistics either. I don't really know any more, it's been a while. Please, if you feel like wandering around on pubmed and looking things up, do tell me what you come up with.